- 14,795
- 20,421
- Joined
- May 14, 2013
. This makes sense and is most definitely plausible but does the factory gain the licenses per release or does it happen fur the factory as a whole? So does a factory producing 4 different shoes have 4 licenses?Quick story that may be of interest to some of the posters in here (or maybe not).
I work for one of the huge consumer products companies, with a large share of our product manufactured in China. Couple of weeks ago, we shuffled the seating arrangement on our floor. My new neighbors are part of the legal team that fights piracy. One of the team members had two copies of a product on her desk, so I asked her about them.
She explained that one was an authentic product while the other was made by a licensee whose license had expired, but was continuing to produce product. There were a couple of minor, but noticeable differences between the two. She explained that they had the know-how and molds required to produce the product, but no longer had access to the same materials because we did not allow them to source the materials themselves. Our supply chain team sources materials from Party A and ships them to Party B in prescribed volumes.
If Nike follows a similar approach, this could explain a) why many GM shoes are very close, but have slight differences (think the lining on the DB4s) and b) why the latest Black and Royals have far different materials.
The only thing is these factories are keeping up with the most current releases meaning they still have access to the materials. So they still have licenses.
Last edited: